2019 Free Microsoft EnsurePass 300-115 Dumps VCE and PDF Download Part 2

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300-115 Dumps VCE and PDF
2019 300-115 Dumps VCE and PDF

 

QUESTION 11

What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

 

A.

4

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

E.

10

F.

13

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-series- switches/qa_c67-722110.html

 

 

QUESTION 12

Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?

 

A.

VTP pruning

B.

port-security

C.

storm control

D.

bpdguard

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html#vtp_pruning

 

 

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?

 

image009

 

A.

switch1

channel-group 1 mode active

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

B.

switch1

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switch2

channel-group 1 mode passive

C.

switch1

channel-group 1 mode on

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

switch1

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:

Mode

Description

active

Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.

auto

Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.

desirable

Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.

on

Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With theonmode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in theonmode is connected to another interface group in theonmode.

passive

Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

 

Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers. Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:

An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.

An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.

An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation. An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

 

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-1_13_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html

 

 

QUESTION 14

For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?

 

A.

Rapid Spanning-Tree

B.

Spanning-Tree Timers

C.

Spanning-Tree FastPort

D.

Spanning-Tree PortFast

E.

Spanning-Tree Fast Forward

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode.

Example configuration:

Switch-C# configure terminal

Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24

Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference:http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seq Num=36

 

 

QUESTION 15

Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?

 

A.

native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform

B.

native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors

C.

native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform

D.

port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements. Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements.

Table 21Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2

TLV

Definition

Device-ID TLV

Identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Address TLV

Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices.

Port-ID TLV

Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent.

Capabilities TLV

Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a device type, for example, a switch.

Version TLV

Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running.

Platform TLV

Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500.

IP Network Prefix TLV

Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interfaceprotocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0.

VTP Management Domain TLV

Advertises the system’s configured VTP management domain name-string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes.

Native VLAN TLV

Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This feature is implemented only for interfaces that support the IEEE 802.1Q protocol.

Full/Half Duplex TLV

Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems between adjacent network elements.

 

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015.

html

 

 

QUESTION 16

Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?

 

A.

VLAN

B.

access

C.

default

D.

routing

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:

Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.

Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55_se/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf

 

 

QUESTION 17

After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?

 

A.

The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.

B.

IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.

C.

The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.

D.

The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge.

RSTP bridge port roles:

* Root port – A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost

* Designated port – A forwarding port for every LAN segment

* Alternate port – A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.

* Backup port – A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.

* Disabled port – Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/24062-146.html

 

 

QUESTION 18

Which statement describes what happens when a port configured with root guard receives a superior BPDU?

 

A.

The port goes into errdisabled state and stops forwarding traffic.

B.

The port goes into BPDU-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

C.

The port goes into loop-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

D.

The port goes into root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The root guard ensures that the port on which root guard is enabled is the designated port. Normally, root bridge ports are all designated ports, unless two or more ports of the root bridge are connected together. If the bridge receives superior STP Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) on a root guard-enabled port, root guard moves this port to a root- inconsistent STP state. This root-inconsistent state is effectively equal to a listening state.

No traffic is forwarded across this port. In this way, the root guard enforces the position of the root bridge.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96b.shtml

 

 

QUESTION 19

In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?

 

A.

within the Ethernet header

B.

within the Ethernet payload

C.

within the Ethernet FCS

D.

within the Ethernet source MAC address

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Frame format

 

image011

 

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame

802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the EtherType/length fields of the original frame

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q

 

 

QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?

 

image012

 

A.

4-bytes except the native VLAN

B.

8-bytes except the native VLAN

C.

4-bytes including native VLAN

D.

8-bytes including native VLAN

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag protocol identifier (TPID), the other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).


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